Skip to main content

Nephrology MCQ

 

Nephrology MCQ

Question: A 35-year-old man presents with edema, frothy urine, and fatigue. Laboratory investigations show proteinuria >3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • A. Acute glomerulonephritis
  • B. Chronic kidney disease
  • C. Nephrotic syndrome
  • D. Acute tubular necrosis
Answer: C. Nephrotic syndrome

Explanation: 

Nephrotic syndrome is defined by proteinuria >3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and often hyperlipidemia. Clinical features include generalized edema (periorbital first), frothy urine, and fatigue. Common causes: minimal change disease (children), FSGS, membranous nephropathy (adults). Nephritic syndrome shows hematuria, hypertension, and mild proteinuria. Management includes treating underlying cause, salt restriction, diuretics, ACE inhibitors/ARBs, and immunosuppressive therapy for selected causes.

Key Laboratory Findings:

Parameter Finding
Proteinuria >3.5 g/day
Serum Albumin Low (<3 .0="" dl="" g="" td="">
Serum Lipids High (hyperlipidemia)
Edema Generalized, periorbital first
References: 

Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st Ed, Ch. 226;
 UpToDate: Nephrotic syndrome in adults.
Labels:

Comments

Post a Comment

Popular posts from this blog

Cardiology MCQ

 Question: A 55-year-old man presents with dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. On examination, he has bibasal crackles, elevated jugular venous pressure, and an S3 heart sound. Echocardiography shows reduced ejection fraction of 35%. What is the most likely diagnosis? Options: A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Systolic heart failure (HFrEF) C. Diastolic heart failure (HFpEF) D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy ✅ Answer: B. Systolic heart failure (HFrEF) Explanation: This patient has classic symptoms of heart failure: dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Physical signs: bibasal crackles (pulmonary congestion), elevated JVP (right-sided pressure), S3 gallop (ventricular systolic dysfunction). Echocardiography shows reduced ejection fraction (<40%), which defines HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction). Diastolic heart failure (HFpEF) typically presents with preserved EF (>50%), often in elderly hypertensive patient...
Post a Comment
Read more

Cardiology MCQ

  Question : A 58-year-old man presents with sudden severe retrosternal chest pain radiating to the jaw, associated with sweating and nausea. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads V1–V4. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Options: A. Inferior wall myocardial infarction B. Lateral wall myocardial infarction C. Anterior wall myocardial infarction D. Pericarditis ✅ Answer: C. Anterior wall myocardial infarction Explanation : Clinical features: Severe retrosternal chest pain radiating to jaw or left arm, sweating, nausea, and vomiting are classic ACS symptoms. ECG interpretation: ST-segment elevation in V1–V4 indicates anterior wall MI, usually due to occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) artery. ST elevation in II, III, aVF → inferior MI (RCA occlusion). ST elevation in I, aVL, V5–V6 → lateral MI (LCx or diagonal LAD branch). Management: Immediate reperfusion therapy: primary PCI (preferred) or thrombolysis if PCI not available. Antiplatelet therapy (aspi...
Post a Comment
Read more

Nephrology MCQ

  Nephrology MCQ  Question: A 28-year-old man presents with **sudden onset edema, hematuria, and hypertension** 2 weeks after a **sore throat**. Urine shows **RBC casts**, proteinuria 2 g/day. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Chronic kidney disease C. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (nephritic syndrome) D. Minimal change disease Answer: C. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (nephritic syndrome) Explanation (Point-wise): 1. Onset: Symptoms started 1–2 weeks after a **streptococcal infection** (throat/skin). 2. Clinical Features: Sudden edema (periorbital), hematuria (tea-colored urine), and hypertension. 3. Urine Findings: Presence of **RBC casts** confirms **glomerular origin of hematuria**. Proteinuria is usually mild ( 4. Diagnosis: This is classic **post-infectious glomerulonephritis**, a **nephritic syndrome**. ...
Post a Comment
Read more